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Quick question.. do people say it sounds better to run speakers, or subs at higher ohms (2 ohm, 4 om) because it's more efficent?... Basicly meaning it would sound the EXACT same at 1 ohm if they had the voltage to withstand whatever equipt they were using?.. I know it's a tad bit confusing because I myself am being confused haha.
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So then with lower independence, the THD would rise therefore that's why the distortion is higher at lower ohms? Also, the THD is higher at lower ohms because the amps less efficent? Or does the efficency have nothing to do with SQ?
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The best way to say it is: The speakers dont sound better, the amps sound better. THD, damping etc on the amp changes with impedance
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And higher impedance means less stress on electrical, allowing the amps to see more true power if your electrical is not efficient for lower impedance...or something like that...sry sleepy.