Theoretical and actual yield

[Mustang2dakota]

Easy and stupid question, (not my setup,but a good example) let's say that I want to wire up 2 15's at 1000rms and they are DVC 2ohm just for simplicity let's say I want to wire them to 1ohm cause that's what said amp puts out at 1ohm. Now that I have an example lets get onto the question. So I only have one amp and I'm putting two 1,000rms 15's to it, if I wire these 15's in parallel which would put them at 1ohm; I then am only utilizing 1ch on my amp, so is each 15 still gettin 1000rms or is it split 50/50? My answer would be yes because this chain of wires is still reading 1ohm, but chances are I'm thinking wrong so I'd love someone to prove me wrong or right.

[reedal]

Two DVC 2ohm can't be wired to 1ohm, and the total rms out of your amp gets split between the load of the two subs wired together. But your wiring options are 8ohm, 2ohm, and .5ohm. If you want 1ohm with two subs, get dual 4

[Mustang2dakota]

Two DVC 2ohm can't be wired to 1ohm, and the total rms out of your amp gets split between the load of the two subs wired together. But your wiring options are 8ohm, 2ohm, and .5ohm. If you want 1ohm with two subs, get dual 4

I ment to put dvc 4ohm, good job catching my mistake. I figured that's how it would work but wasn't sure because i was only utilizing 1ch. Thanks for the clarification. Like i said im not doing this, just an example.