booboo123 Posted April 6, 2011 Report Posted April 6, 2011 its a dumb ? but here it goes, if i have six single 4 ohm subs and wire two of them into a 2 ohm load and do that for all of them like (ill have three pairs wired into 2 ohms ) can i get one amp that will push all of them @ a 2ohm load and just run 3 pair of speaker wires into the one channel or will this change something thanks for the reply
booboo123 Posted April 6, 2011 Author Report Posted April 6, 2011 its a dumb ? but here it goes, if i have six single 4 ohm subs and wire two of them into a 2 ohm load and do that for all of them like (ill have three pairs wired into 2 ohms ) can i get one amp that will push all of them @ a 2ohm load and just run 3 pair of speaker wires into the one channel or will this change something thanks for the reply anybody
Supercharged DCs Posted April 6, 2011 Report Posted April 6, 2011 if you wire 3 2ohm loads together, wouldn't that make it a 6 ohm load or something like that? Bassless once again. Can't seem to keep a system for more than a few weeks Saving for a '06 Nissan 350z, look for build around June 2012.
booboo123 Posted April 6, 2011 Author Report Posted April 6, 2011 if you wire 3 2ohm loads together, wouldn't that make it a 6 ohm load or something like that? im talking about wiring two single 4 ohm into a 2 ohm load and doing that on all six of them and running that into a one channel amp , or something like three 2 ohm subs into one channel amp
blownengine Posted April 6, 2011 Report Posted April 6, 2011 Ok let me try my hand here. If you wire all 6 of them in parallel I think that give you 1.33 ohms. (Right?) If you wire the three initial pairs in series. (So you have 3, 8 ohm pairs.) Then wire those three pairs in parallel you get 2.67 ohms. Can somebody verify my calculations? 2003 Dodge Ram 1500 SLT (Yea its got a Hemi)Alpine CDA-105KnuKonceptz 0ga CCA Big 3 with Yellow Top 15" SoundQubed HDC3DC Audio 1.2K (Bass)Pioneer 6x9's (Front)Pioneer 6.5's (Rear)Kicker 3.5's (Dash)Sony amp on the highs. (Hey it was free)
MrSkippyJ Posted April 7, 2011 Report Posted April 7, 2011 its a dumb ? but here it goes, if i have six single 4 ohm subs and wire two of them into a 2 ohm load and do that for all of them like (ill have three pairs wired into 2 ohms ) can i get one amp that will push all of them @ a 2ohm load and just run 3 pair of speaker wires into the one channel or will this change something thanks for the reply Doesn't work like that. That would give you .667 ohms. Best you can do is 2.667 ohms by doing 8 ohm pairs and running that into your mono channel amp. Assuming it is a mono block. F150: Stock 2019 Harley Road Glide: Amp: TM400Xad - 4 channel 400 watt Processor: DSR1 Fairing (Front) 6.5s -MMats PA601cx Lid (Rear) 6x9s - TMS69
MrSkippyJ Posted April 7, 2011 Report Posted April 7, 2011 Ok let me try my hand here. If you wire all 6 of them in parallel I think that give you 1.33 ohms. (Right?) If you wire the three initial pairs in series. (So you have 3, 8 ohm pairs.) Then wire those three pairs in parallel you get 2.67 ohms. Can somebody verify my calculations? 6 paralleled gives you .667, 3 paralleled gives 1.33 something. F150: Stock 2019 Harley Road Glide: Amp: TM400Xad - 4 channel 400 watt Processor: DSR1 Fairing (Front) 6.5s -MMats PA601cx Lid (Rear) 6x9s - TMS69
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