scooter99 Posted January 24, 2014 Report Posted January 24, 2014 Ok guys I'm trying to figure something out. I'm going to be running dual 3500.1's. I have 2 channels out of my 360.3 processor. I don't want to strap the amps because I want to run 1 ohm per sub per amp. Subs are dual 2 ohm. Question is, if I run 2 channels into one amp out of the processor, and then use the pass thru from that to the second amp, will that signal still be processed? Help please. I'm just not understanding and I'd like to. Crescendo 3500.1 manual Sorry, I'm just not wrapping my head around this. Slave mode is equal to strapping right? So if I went the slave route, a single rca out of the first amp to the second amp, I can't just run one sub per amp can I? I'd have to strap? I appreciate any help. Facebook Page: S99Creations 2006 F250 Lariat Build
Noel989 Posted January 24, 2014 Report Posted January 24, 2014 Y splitter? After the .3 Build Log - http://www.stevemead...-cruiser-el-pt/
scooter99 Posted January 24, 2014 Author Report Posted January 24, 2014 That's my issue. It's going ot sound petty to most people, but in my build, I want it all to match. I was originally going to make my own RCA's, but I don't have the time and don't want to wait for the rca ends to get here. So then I was going to get the SHCA rcas that just came out but there aren't any 1m to 2f splitters. Which means I'd have to make some, and while I have the stuff, then they won't match. Soooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooo, What I was thinking of doing, was running a 2ch rca out of the 360, into the first amp, then utilizing the pass thru into the other amp. However, I don't know if that is going to be a full range signal, or the signal being passed thru from the 360. make sense? Like I said petty, but to me it's important. Facebook Page: S99Creations 2006 F250 Lariat Build
Borris The Blade Posted January 24, 2014 Report Posted January 24, 2014 My guess is it should be the same single that comes in to the amp that it passes to the next. That was always my understanding but I could be wrong. It's like rubbing your wiener up against a sheep.
scooter99 Posted January 24, 2014 Author Report Posted January 24, 2014 That would be perfect for me, if I could get it confirmed I'd be great! Facebook Page: S99Creations 2006 F250 Lariat Build
775Tundra Posted January 24, 2014 Report Posted January 24, 2014 My guess is it should be the same single that comes in to the amp that it passes to the next. That was always my understanding but I could be wrong. X2 2003 Tahoe dc 7.5k dc level 5 15's (3) MMats 341's xs power batts lots of sky high cable dual alts(came off the sky-high gmc and don't know who made them) ipad in center console vu-din in center console all being ripped out and being sold
Trey_Dog650 Posted January 24, 2014 Report Posted January 24, 2014 Whatever you send to the first amp after the .3 and do the pass through. Then the second amp will see whatever the first amp sees 13 Kia Forte Build! 07 Hyundai Accent Build ***Super Seller*** N8ball2013 And then he gets to say ok all you guys were right. im sorry for being a dummy poo poo head.
Trey_Dog650 Posted January 24, 2014 Report Posted January 24, 2014 Basically what borris said since my explanation sounds confusing af when you read it out loud lol 13 Kia Forte Build! 07 Hyundai Accent Build ***Super Seller*** N8ball2013 And then he gets to say ok all you guys were right. im sorry for being a dummy poo poo head.
scooter99 Posted January 24, 2014 Author Report Posted January 24, 2014 Thanks guys. Jon confirmed it as well. Were all good. I appreciate the help guys! Facebook Page: S99Creations 2006 F250 Lariat Build
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