Jzzt Posted April 11, 2013 Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 Ok So I have these 2 speakers laying around in a box, nothing important here besides the fact that one is a dvc 4ohm and the other is a single vc 8ohm. Now can I wire that dvc 4ohm in series to go up to 8ohms so then I would have 2 speakers each at 8 ohms and wire them in parallel down to 4 ohms? And will each receive the same power? Here is a quick sketch to show what I mean. Any answers are appreciated, thanks. I dont know anything about wiring up speakers with different impedance. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bighossf150 Posted April 11, 2013 Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 dont do it Used to have a loud truck 2009 Corvette Z06, H/C/I, 150 shot, g force tune, 730rwhp/690rwtq 2013 F-150 limited, MPT Tune, leveled on 35"s Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jzzt Posted April 11, 2013 Author Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 dont do it I'm hoping for a little more detailed explanation of why Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
newls1 Posted April 11, 2013 Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 cause well,......... THERE DIFFERENT OHM LOADS. Is that a good enough explaination? I love my staffie So anti FACEBOOK it isn't even funny Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jzzt Posted April 11, 2013 Author Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 I'm aware they are different ohm loads, but what I want answered 1. would the final ohm load not be 4 ohms? 2. would each speaker get different amount of power? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ben Fultz Posted April 11, 2013 Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 http://www.stevemeadedesigns.com/board/topic/164906-why-subwoofers-need-the-same-impedance/ Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jzzt Posted April 11, 2013 Author Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 http://www.stevemeadedesigns.com/board/topic/164906-why-subwoofers-need-the-same-impedance/ Ok, but on the left of the diagram when I wire that dual voice coil 4 ohm sub in series wont the sub be at 8ohms now? And since both subs are now at 8 ohms, cant I just bridge them and I will end up with a final impedance of 4? I'm hoping to learn from this, not trying to prove anyone wrong, I just dont know anything about this, trying to get some answers. Thanks Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Max1636 Posted April 11, 2013 Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 (Old Car) 1995 Volkswagon Golf MK3 2.0L: Fi SP4 18 On A DC Audio 3.5K In A PWK Box Hertz DSK 6" Speakers, Clarion HU 3x Fullriver 120aH AGM's, 225A Alt 2012 Subaru BRZ: Audison Prima APK 163 Bit One, Rockford Amps, Audison Sub Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jordan23 Posted April 11, 2013 Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 Well its not really a matter of if its possible its a matter of how long the equippment wil last. I'm guessing the subs are not the same model but if they are in seperate boxes you can hook your subs up like you want, just make sure that one is not being pushed too hard. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jordan23 Posted April 11, 2013 Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 I'm aware they are different ohm loads, but what I want answered 1. would the final ohm load not be 4 ohms? 2. would each speaker get different amount of power? 1. Yes the final ohm load will be 4. 2. Should only be a slight difference between the two. As i said before just put them in different boxes and you will be fine. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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