Mobileaudio25 Posted January 10, 2013 Report Share Posted January 10, 2013 I'm just asking for personal knowledge why everything is set to flat but the LPF is turned up to the max on the amplifier? Is it just to make sure the 50hz tone is cleared? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrSkippyJ Posted January 10, 2013 Report Share Posted January 10, 2013 40hz tone, and yes. F150: Stock 2019 Harley Road Glide: Amp: TM400Xad - 4 channel 400 watt Processor: DSR1 Fairing (Front) 6.5s -MMats PA601cx Lid (Rear) 6x9s - TMS69 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Noel989 Posted January 10, 2013 Report Share Posted January 10, 2013 It's so it can get the whole spectrum Build Log - http://www.stevemead...-cruiser-el-pt/ Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SnowDrifter Posted January 10, 2013 Report Share Posted January 10, 2013 Because lets say you are playing a 40hz tone and your LPF is set low enough that it is attenuating it by say... 5db (for example, real would number could be ANYTHING) and you set your gains. Because it is making the 40hz tone 5db quieter than it would normally be, your gain will be set 5db too high. So really what it comes down to is making sure 100% of the signal is making it through the amplifier and is unaffected by the filters, which would skew the reading ~~~~~~~~SAY NO TO PHOTOBUCKET~~~~~~~~ Snow's DD-1 tracks here: https://www.stevemeadedesigns.com/board/topic/167433-snows-dd-1-tracks/ My take on OFC vs CCA: https://www.stevemeadedesigns.com/board/topic/110381-things-that-piss-you-off-in-the-car-audio-world/?do=findComment&comment=2461444 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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