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This gay-ass math question.


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I think you guys are looking at it too hard. Each day has a 50% chance of rain. It's a 50% chance that it will rain and a 50% chance it won't rain so I'm going to say 50%

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f(3)(x) = 4x(3-2x2) e-x2..

Now f(3)(x) = 0 only when x = 0 or 3-2x2 = 0, so x = 0 or ± (3/2)1/2 ±1.225. Checking values in the interval [1, 2], we get the following (where we have rounded up the values of f"(x) rather than simply rounding to two decimal places.

/thread

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f(3)(x) = 4x(3-2x2) e-x2..

Now f(3)(x) = 0 only when x = 0 or 3-2x2 = 0, so x = 0 or ± (3/2)1/2 ±1.225. Checking values in the interval [1, 2], we get the following (where we have rounded up the values of f"(x) rather than simply rounding to two decimal places.

/thread

what the hell did you just say? lmao are you trying to figure out quantum physics?

apparently you dont get the fact that the subaru was wrapped around a pole. and by the status of your comment, im guessing your mouth is too.

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OK, it's been almost 10 years since I did this stuff, but I'm almost positive this is correct. Short answer=50% chance that it won't rain on AT LEAST 2 days.

"At least" means you have to add the chance it will not rain on two days and the chance it will not rain on 3 days. At least means it could not rain on 2 or 3 of the days.

No rain on exactly 2 days:

3!/(2! x 1! ) x (0.5)^2 x (0.5)^1 = 0.375

No rain on 3 days:

3!/(3! x 0!) x (0.5)^3 x (0.5)^0 = 0.125

Add those together and get .500...or 50%

Off topic-just re-found my scientific calculator today lol. And I always hated word problems. But I was always good at math, and even if I'm wrong, it's only one question. haha ;)

edit- to explain

3=# of days

(2!x1!)=2 days of no rain, 1 day of rain

0.5=chance of rain, chance of no rain

all the exponents are the chances of rain, and the chances of no rain. would be easier to explain if it weren't 50%

So another problem. say its a 60% chance of rain, the first part would be

3!/(2! x 1! ) x (0.4)^2 x (0.6)^1

Thats 2 days of no rain (40% chance of no rain) and one day of rain (60% chance of rain)

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I think its 50%, here's why:

These are all the possible combinations for rain/no rain

N = no rain; R = rain

Day 1: N N N N R R R R

Day 2: N N R R R N N R

Day 3: N R R N R R N N

The chances for any one of these happening is 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8 = 12.5%

(Quick check: the chances of one of these combinations should be 100%. 12.5% * 8 = 100%)

Now we just add the possibilites that fit the question criteria (at LEAST 2 days with no rain).

N N R N

N R N N

R N N N

So it's 12.5% * 4 = 50%

I haven't taken my stats class yet (took AP Stats awhile ago but that class was useless), but my logic seems good

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